NEET Mock Test | PreMedicalBiology

Q1. Lungs are made-up of air filled sacs, the alveoli. They do not collapse even after the forceful expiration because of.

A. Residual volume. B. Inspiratory reserve volume. C. Tidal volume. D. Expiratory reserve volume.

Explanation:
A. In the lungs, even after the most forceful expiration, some of the volume of air remains. This volume is termed residual volume. Due to this, lungs do not collapse even after the most forceful expiration. RV is about 1100 ML to 1200 ML.

Q2. Reduction in pH of blood will.

A. Reduce the blood supply to the brain. B. Decrease the affinity of hemoglobin with oxygen. C. Release bicarbonate iron by the liver. D. Reduce the rate of heartbeat.

Explanation:
B. Reduction in pH of blood IE increase the acidity favours the dissociation of oxyhemoglobin thereby giving up more O2. When this phenomena occurs due to increase in carbon dioxide concentration then it is called bore effect.

Q3. Lungs do not collapse between breaths and some air always remains in the lungs, which can never be expelled because.

A. There is a negative pressure in the lungs. B. Negative intrapleural pressure pulling at the lungs wall. C. There is a positive intrapleural pressure. D. pressure in the Lungs in higher than the atmospheric pressure.

Explanation:
B.Lungs do not collapse between breaths and some air always remains in the lungs which can be never expelled because there is a negative intrapleural pressure putting at the lung walls adjacent lung alveoli.

Q4. Name the pulmonary disease in which alveolar surface area involved in gas exchange is drastically reduced due to the damage of the alveolar walls

A. pleurisy B. emphysema C. pneumonia D. asthma

Explanation:
B.Emphysema, a chronic respiratory disease where there is over-inflatation of the alveoli in the lungs causing a decrease in lung's function and often breathlessness. In this disease, the alveolar wall are damaged leading to drastic reduction in gas exchange.

Q5. Which one of the following is the correct statement for respiration in humans?

A. Cigarette smoking may lead to inflammation of bronchie. B. neural signals from pneumotoxic centre In Pons reason a brain can increase the duration of respiration. C. Workers in grinding and stone breaking industry may suffer from lung fibrosis. D. About 90% of carbon dioxide is carried by haemoglobin and carbaaminohemoglobin.

Explanation:
C. Fumes, dust present in the workplace result in lung disorders. This is because the defense mechanism of our body cannot fully cope with this situation of so much dust. Long exposure to it give riseto inflammation leading to fibrosis and therefore cause serious lung damage.

Q6. Blood pressure in the pulmonary artery is.

A. More than that in the carotid B. more than that In the pulmonary vein. C. less Then that in the vena cava. D. Same as that in the arota.

Explanation:
B. The pulmonary arteries have thicker smooth muscles and connective tissue than the pulmonary vein to accommodate the high pressure and high rate of blood flow.

Q7. In mammals, which blood vessel would normally carry large amounts of urea?

A. Dorsa aorta B. Haptic Vein C. Hepatic portal vein D. Renal vein

Explanation:
B.Urea is synthesized in liver hence maximum amount of urea is present in hepatic vein and minimum in renal vein.

Q8. In the blood cells whose reduction in number can cause clotting disorder, leading to excessive loss of blood from the body.

A. Erythrocytes. B. Leukocytes. C. Neutrophils. D. Thrombocytes.

Explanation:
D. A reduction in number of thrombocytes can lead to clotting disorder which will result in excessive loss of blood from the body. These are also called blood platelets.

Q9. Serum differs from blood in.

A. Lacking Globulins. B. Lacking albumins. C. Lacking clotting factors. D. Lacking antibodies.

Explanation:
C. When all clothing factors along with cells are removed from plasma, it becomes serum.

Q10. Person with blood group AB is considered as universal recipient because he has.

A. Both A & B antigens on RBC but no antibodies in the plasma. B. Both A & B antibodies in the plasma. C. No antigen on RBC and no antibodies in the plasma. D. Both A & B antigens in the plasma but no antibodies.

Explanation:
A. Blood group AB is universal recipient because the person with AB blood group has both A & B antigen on RBC but no antibodies in the plasma.

Q11. Two friends are eating together on a dining table. One of them suddenly start cuffing while swallowing some food. This cuffing would have been due to improper movement of.

A. Diaphogram. B. Neck. C. tongue D. Epiglottis.

Explanation:
D. The epiglottis is a flap that is made of elastic cartilage tissue covered with a mucous membrane attached to the entrance of the larynx. It prevents the entry of food into the larynx and direct it into the oesophagus. Due to the improper movement of the epiglottis, one may suddenly start cuffing while swallowing some food.

Q12. The hemoglobin of a human fetus.

A. Has a lower affinity for oxygen than that of the adult. B. It's affirmative for oxygen is same as that of an adult. C. Has only two proteins subunits instead of four. D. has a higher Affinity for oxygen than that of an adult.

Explanation:
D. Value for hemoglobin are 14 to 20 gram per 100ML of blood in infants, 13 to 18g per 100ML in adults male, and 12 to 16g per 100ML in adult females.

Q13. The main difference in gram (+ve) and gram (-ve) bacteria reside in their.

A. Cell wall. B. Cell membrane. C. Cytoplasm. D. Flagella

Explanation:
A. differentiation lie in the composition, lipid content and thickness of cell wall of these bacteria.

Q14. Plasmodium, the malarial parasite, belongs to class.

A. sarcondina B. ciliata C. sporozoa D. dinophyceae

Explanation:
C. Plasmodium, the malarial parasite belong to the class sporozoa. they are intracellular parasite reproduced by multiple fission and life cycle may include the two different host.

Q15. Influenza virus has.

A. DNA. B. RNA C. both DNA and RNA D. Only protein and no nucleic acid.

Explanation:
B. Influenza virus a single strand RNA virus

Q16. In Amoeba and Paramecium, osmoregulation occurs through.

A. Pseudopodia. B. Nucleus. C. Contractile vacuoles. D. General surface.

Explanation:
C. Paramecium and amoeba contained 2 contractile vacuoles, anterior and posterior, for osmoregulation, maintaining water balance in the body.

Q17. Which of the following is the use of lichens in case of pollution?

A. Lichens are not related with pollution. B. They act as bio indicator of pollution. C. They treat the polluted water. D. They promote pollution.

Explanation:
B. growth of lichens on tree is inhibited by air pollution as atmospheric pollution cause decrease in their population. therefore lichens are biological indicator of pollution.

Q18. Lichens indicate SO2 pollution because they.

A. show association Between algae and fungi. B. Grow faster than others. C. Are sensitive to SO2 D. Flourish in SO 2 rich environment.

Explanation:
C. They are extremely sensitive to SO2. The lichens, especially epiphytic lichens serve as bio indicator air pollution for SO2.

Q19. Replyum Is present in the ovary of Flower of.

A. Lemon. B. Mustard. C. Sunflower. D. pea

Explanation:
B. At maturity, ovary becomes bilocular due to the formation of fall septum (replum) in mustard.

Q20. Conifers differ from grasses in the.

A. Lack of Xylem tracheids. B. Absence of pollen tubes. C. Formation of endosperm before fertilization. D. Production of seeds from ovule.

Explanation:
C. The conifers differ from the angiosperm in the formation of endosperm before fertilization. in Gymnosperms the endosperm is a haploid tissue as it formed before fertilization, while in angiosperm endosperm is formed after fertilization.

Q21. Which of the following is not an inhibitory substance governing seed dominancy?

A. Abscisic acid. B. Phenolic acid. C. Para ascorbic acid. D. Gibberellic acid.

Explanation:
D. It is not an inhibitory substance governing seed dormancy because Gibberellic acid promotes growth and elongation of cells. It helps in plants growth if used in a small amount.

Q22. Which of the following pairs is of unicellular algae?

A. gelidium and gracilaria B. anabaena and vovox C. chlorella and spirulina D. laminaria and sargassum

Explanation:
C. Chlorella and spirulina Are unicellular algae as they are rich in protein and hence used as food supplement.

Q23. Name the enzyme that facilitate opening of DNA Helix during transcription.

A. DNA helicase B. DNA polymerase. C. RNA polymerase. D. DNA ligase.

Explanation:
C. RNA polymerase facilitate opening of DNA Helix during transcription. RNA polymerase is the main transcription enzyme. Transcription begins when RNA polymerase bind to a promoter sequence near the beginning of a gene.

Q24. According to Robert May, the global species diversity is about.

A. 20 million B. 50 million C. 7 million D. 1.5 million

Explanation:
C. Robert May estimate global species diversity at about 7 million, although some other scientists estimate it range from 20 to 50 million.

Q25. The ovary is half inferior in.

A. Mustard. B. Sunflower. C. plum D. Brinjal.

Explanation:
C. The ovary is half inferior in plum. It is at the top and other whorls are at the same level.

Q26. Which one of the following is the most abundant protein in the animals?

A. Collagen. B. Lectin. C. Insulin. D. hemoglobin

Explanation:
C. Collagen is the most abundant protein in the animal world.

Q27. Vitamin K is required for.

A. Formation of thromboplastin. B. Of fibrinogen to fibrin. C. Conversion of prothrombin to thrombin. D. Synthesis of prothrombin.

Explanation:
D. Vitamin K is required for the synthesis of prothrombin, necessary for blood clotting. It is also called anti-haemorrhagic vitamin. vitamin k deficency leads to excessive bleeding.

Q28. The ciliated columnar epithelial cell in humans are known to occur in.

A. Bronchioles and fallopian tube. B. Bile duct and oesophagus. C. Fallopian tube and urethra. D. Eustachian tube and stomach lining.

Explanation:
A. ciliated columnar epithelial cell in humans are mainly present in the inner surface of hollow organ like bronchioles and fallopian tube. Their function is to move particles or mucus in a specific direction over the epithelium.

Q29. Choose the correctly matched pair.

A. Tendon- specialized connective tissue. B. Adipose tissue- Dense connective tissue. C. Areolar tissue- Loose connective tissue. D. Cartilage- lose connective tissue.

Explanation:
C. areolar Tissue in the body is the lose connective tissue and provide flexibility and cushioning.

Q30. Identify the wrong statement in context of the heartwood.

A. Organic compounds are deposited in it. B. It is highly durable. C. It conducts water and mineral efficiently. D. It comprises dead element with highly lignified wall.

Explanation:
C. Harwood comprises of dead lignified cell containing organic compounds, such as tannins or other substances. Hardwood is strong, durable and resistance to decay. It does not conduct water and minerals because of the presence of the dead elements.

Q31. The length of different inter nodes in a culm of sugar cane is variable because of.

A. Shoot apical meristem. B. Position of auxiliary buds. C. Size of leaf lamella. At the node below each internode. D. intercalary meristem

Explanation:
D. Intercalary meristem is present away from apical meristem in primary permanent tissue. It is present at the base of internodes. Intercalary meristem is responsible for increase in the length.

Q32. Which one of the following statements is correct?

A. The seeds in Grasses is not endospermic. B. Mango is a parthenocarpic fruit. C. A proteinaceous aleurone layer is present in the maize grain. D. A sterile pistil is called a staminode

Explanation:
C. A proteinaceous aleurone protein layer of maize starts developing approx. in 10-15 days after pollination in stack That taken 40 day for the aleurone to mature completely.

Q33. Which one of the following living Organism completely lack a cell wall?

A. Cyanobacteria. B. sea-fan (gorgonia) C. Saccharomyces D. Blue-green algae.

Explanation:
Sea-fan B. Sea-fan (Gorgonia)Belongs to Kingdom animalia, phylum cnidaria and order Gorgonacea. Thus it lacks cell wall unlike cyanobacteria or blue-green algae having cell wall which is composed of Peptidoglycan.

Q34. Which one of the following is not a characteristics of phylum Annelida?

A. Closed circulatory system. B. Segmentation. C. Pseudocoelom. D. Ventral nerve cord.

Explanation:
C. In phylum Annelida, Blood vascular system is closed. The nervous system is with a pair of cerebral ganglia and a double ventral nerve cord bearing ganglia and lateral nerve in each segment. The body is elongated, bilaterally symmetrical, triploblastic, truly coelomate and metamerically segmented into similar metameres.

Q35. Earthworms have no skeleton, but during burrowing the anterior end becomes turgid and act as a hydraulic skeleton. It is due to.

A. coelomic fluid B. Blood. C. gut peristalsis D. Setae.

Explanation:
A. During borrowing, the coelomic fluid become turgid and act as hydraulic skeleton. Body cavity of earthworm is filled with an alkaline, colorless or Milky coelomic fluid containing water, salts and some protein and four types of coelomic corpuscles.

Q36. The term 'Nuclein" for the genetic material was used by.

A. Franklin. B. Meischer C. Chargaff D. Mendel

Explanation:
B. The nucleic Acid was first reported by F. Meischer in 1869 from the nuclei of pus cells and was named Nuclein.

Q37. Which of the following is incorrect for wind pollinated plants?

A. Well exposed stamina and stigma. B. Many ovules in each ovary. C. Flowers are small And not brightly coloured. D. Pollen grains are light and non sticky.

Explanation:
B. Wind pollinated plants have single ovule in each ovary. Hence option B is incorrect.

Q38. Attachment of spindle fibers to kinetochores of chromosomes become evident in.

A. Anaphase. B. Telophase. C. Prophase. D. Metaphase.

Explanation:
D. During the metaphase stage of cell cycle, spindle fibers originating from the centrosomes attached to the kinetochore of chromosomes.

Q39. The biosynthesis of ribosomal RNA occurs in.

A. Ribosomes. B. Golgi apparatus. C. Microbodies. D. nucleolus

Explanation:
D. biosynthesis of ribosomal RNA occurs in nucleolus of nucleus. It helps the nucleus of the cell to control cell metabolism.

Q40. The impact of immigration on population density is.

A. Negative. B. Both positive and negative. C. Neutralised by natality. D. Positive.

Explanation:
D. Immigration increases the number of individuals in an area hence Population density increase. Therefore immigration have positive impact on population density.

Q41. Infection of ascaris usually occur by.

A. Drinking water containing egg of ascaris. B. Eating imperfectly cooked pork. C. Tse Tes fly. D. Mosquito bite.

Explanation:
A. It is due to the contaminated water, vegetables (uncooked), fruits,

Q42. Widal test is carried out to test.

A. Malaria. B. Diabetes Mellitus. C. HIV. AIDS. D. Typhoid fever.

Explanation:
D. Widal test is Used in the diagnostic test for typhoid fever. This test Demonstrate the presence of somatic and flagellar agglutinins to Salmonella typhi in the patient blood serum using suspension of O & H antigen.

Q43. The letter T in T-lymphocyte refers to.

A. Thyroid. B. Thalamus. C. Tonsil. D. thymus

Explanation:
D. T in T-lymphocyte refers to thymus, which is haemopoietic as well as an endocrine gland. Thymus is the seedbed of thymic lymphocyte known as (T-lymphocytes).

Q44. Evolution is.

A. Progressive development of a race. B. History And development of race along with variations. C. History of race. D. Development of race.

Explanation:
B. According to Darwin's theory of natural selection, in the struggle for existence, only those individuals survive which possess the most useful variations hence History And development of race along with variations.

Q45. Which of the following is the correct sequence of eventS in the origin of life? I. Formation of protobionts. II. Synthesis of organic monomers. III. Synthesis of organic polymers. IV. Formation of DNA based genetic systems.

A. I,II,III,IV B. I,III,II,IV C. II,III,I,IV D. II,III,IV,I

Explanation:
C. Synthesis of organic monomers -> Synthesis of organic polymers -> Formation of protobionts -> Formation of DNA based genetic systems.

Test Summary